How did recessions end before the Fed was created

if there was no government agency to inflate the money supply?

How is it that the longest and worst recession in the history of our country occurred after the creation of the Fed, which was designed specifically to prevent such an occurrence?

How come endless bailout attempts and the creation of dozens of new government make-work programs were tried during the 1930's, yet we averaged 18% unemployment for the decade? I wonder why we expect the same solutions that failed miserably during the 1930's will somehow result in a different outcome in the new millennium.

How did the recession of 1920 end in less than 2 years despite starting with a greater drop in production than the Great Depression and having a government that did almost nothing to address the situation?

Why have Japanese attempts to implement a Keynesian solution resulted in a lost decade?

I wonder why rational people who fully understand the limitations and historical failures of centralized planning, have no problem with centralized planning of our banking system. The same persons who would instantly reject the notion of a government agency establishing prices have no problem with a government agency effectively setting the price of borrowing money.

I think we should start asking why we still listen to "experts" who didn't see the crisis coming, denied the existence of the crisis until 6 months after it began, and are at a loss to explain why it occurred.